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The Indian Arms Act (Paper - 3) | MCQs English Medium
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1. The primary purpose of a search under Section 23 is to:
a. Ensure all passengers have valid licences
b. Ascertain whether any contravention of the Arms Act or its rules is being or is likely to be committed
c. Monitor the trade of firearms
d. Enforce customs duties
2. Section 23 empowers the authorities to seize:
a. Only unlicensed arms
b. Only prohibited arms
c. Any arms or ammunition found in the vessel, vehicle, or conveyance during the search
d. Only antique firearms
3. The phrase “any other officer specially empowered by the Central Government” in Section 23 implies:
a. Only police officers can conduct searches
b. The Central Government may empower specific officers to conduct searches under this section
c. All government employees can search
d. Only magistrates can empower themselves
4. Seized arms or ammunition under Section 23 may include:
a. Arms being legally transported under a valid licence
b. Arms intended for lawful use only
c. Both licensed and unlicensed arms if contravention is suspected
d. None of the above
5. Section 23 applies to:
a. Only vessels
b. Only road vehicles
c. Vessels, vehicles, or any other means of conveyance
d. Only railway transport
6. The power to stop and search under Section 23 is primarily:
a. A preventive power to check potential contraventions
b. A licensing power
c. A power to regulate trade
d. A civil power for fines
7. Section 23 allows seizure of:
a. The arms or ammunition only
b. The conveyance (vessel/vehicle) along with the arms or ammunition
c. Only illegal firearms
d. Only ammunition
8. Section 23 is different from Section 22 because:
a. Section 22 deals with searches of houses or premises; Section 23 deals with vessels, vehicles, or conveyances
b. Section 22 only applies to police officers
c. Section 23 does not allow seizure
d. Section 22 is about licences only
9. The authority under Section 23 acts:
a. With prior approval of licensing authority
b. Without needing a specific warrant if powers are specially empowered
c. Only after a court order
d. Only during raids
10. Under Section 24, the Central Government may order the seizure of arms or ammunition:
a. Only if the person does not have a licence
b. Even if the person is entitled by law to possess them
c. Only from unlicensed dealers
d. Only after a court conviction
11. The purpose of seizure under Section 24 is:
a. To generate revenue
b. For the public peace and safety
c. To check illegal trade
d. To regulate licences
12. The Central Government may detain seized arms or ammunition under Section 24:
a. Only for a fixed period of 30 days
b. For such period as it thinks necessary
c. Only until the licensing authority permits
d. Only after court approval
13. Section 24 allows the Central Government to act:
a. Only against prohibited arms
b. Regardless of whether the possession is lawful or lawful under any other law
c. Only if the arms are unlicensed
d. Only if there is a complaint filed
14. Section 24 is distinct from Section 22 because:
a. Section 22 is about magistrate-authorised searches; Section 24 is about direct Central Government seizure and detention
b. Section 22 deals with vehicles; Section 24 deals with houses
c. Section 22 applies to illegal arms only; Section 24 does not
d. Section 22 requires public notice; Section 24 does not
15. The power under Section 24 can be exercised:
a. Only by the district magistrate
b. Only in emergencies
c. At any time by the Central Government
d. Only after notice to the person
16. Section 24 implies that lawful possession under the Act:
a. Can never be interfered with
b. May still be overridden by Central Government orders for public safety
c. Requires prior court approval to be overridden
d. Allows only police intervention
17. Section 24 is an example of:
a. Preventive power vested in the Central Government
b. Licensing power
c. Trade regulation power
d. Penal power
18. The scope of Section 24 includes:
a. Only arms
b. Only ammunition
c. Both arms and ammunition in possession of any person
d. Only arms in public places
19. Section 24 emphasizes which principle of administrative law?
a. Discretionary power of Central Government for public peace and safety
b. Mandatory return of all seized property
c. Police as the only enforcing authority
d. Court approval required before seizure
20. Under Section 24A(1), the Central Government may issue a notification in the Official Gazette when it is satisfied that:
a. The area has high traffic
b. There is extensive disturbance of public peace or imminent danger of such disturbance
c. A person possesses unlicensed arms
d. A licence renewal is pending
21. Section 24A(1)(b) specifies that every person possessing notified arms in such area must deposit them:
a. Immediately upon hearing about the notification
b. Before the commencement of the period specified in the notification, starting not earlier than the fourth day after publication
c. After the notification period ends
d. At the licensing authority’s discretion
22. As per Section 24A(1)(b), from the date of publication of the notification, the possession of notified arms:
a. Remains lawful until the period begins
b. Is deemed to have ceased to be lawful
c. Requires police permission
d. Can continue with licence
23. Under Section 24A(1)(c), during the specified period of the notification:
a. People may possess arms with prior licence
b. Possession of notified arms in the area is unlawful
c. Arms may be carried for sport
d. Licensed dealers are exempt
24. Section 24A(1)(d)(i) empowers officers to:
a. Stop only vehicles
b. Search any person, premises, animal, vessel, vehicle, conveyance, or receptacle in the area if they have reason to believe notified arms are secreted
c. Only seize unlicensed arms
d. Only conduct searches after court approval
25. Officers empowered under Section 24A(1)(d)(ii) may:
a. Seize only unlicensed arms
b. Seize any notified arms in possession of any person or discovered during search, and detain them during the notification period
c. Only record the presence of arms
d. Return arms immediately
26. Section 24A(1) allows the Central Government to specify:
a. The maximum number of arms a person may possess
b. Limits of the disturbed area
c. The price for deposition of arms
d. The names of individuals affected
27. The term “notified arms” in Section 24A refers to:
a. Any arms that are prohibited under the Arms Act
b. Arms specified in the notification issued under Section 24A
c. All firearms in India
d. Only military arms
28. Section 24A overrides:
a. All provisions of the Arms Act and other laws
b. All provisions except Section 41 of the Arms Act
c. All local police rules
d. None, it is only a guideline
29. Section 24A ensures that:
a. Only magistrates can search during the notification period
b. Officers specially authorised may search and seize notified arms for public peace in disturbed areas
c. Seizure requires prior court order
d. Possession of any arms is automatically confiscated indefinitely
30. Under Section 24A(2), the period specified in the notification for any area shall initially not exceed:
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. 120 days
31. The Central Government may extend the period of a notification under Section 24A(2):
a. Indefinitely
b. By any period not exceeding ninety days at one time, if the disturbance or imminent danger continues
c. Only once for a maximum of 30 days
d. Only after court approval
32. Extension of a notification under Section 24A(2) is justified when:
a. Only if the police request it
b. There continues to be disturbance of public peace or imminent danger thereof, and it is necessary or expedient to prevent offences involving arms
c. The area has unlicensed firearm sales
d. The licensing authority fails to act
33. Which law’s provisions apply, so far as may be, to searches or seizures under Section 24A(3)?
a. The Arms Act only
b. The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
c. The Indian Penal Code
d. None
34. For the purposes of Section 24A, “arms” as defined in sub-section (4)(a) includes:
a. Only firearms
b. Ammunition
c. Explosives only
d. Military weapons only
35. When a notification period under Section 24A(1) is extended under sub-section (2), references in sub-section (1) to “the period specified in the notification”:
a. Remain as originally issued
b. Are construed as references to the period as so extended
c. Are ignored
d. Must be approved by the district magistrate
36. The maximum extension period allowed at a time under Section 24A(2) is:
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. 120 days
37. Section 24A(3) ensures that searches and seizures under this section:
a. Must follow all CrPC provisions relating to searches and seizures, so far as may be
b. Are exempt from all CrPC provisions
c. Can be conducted without recording reasons
d. Can only be done in police stations
38. The sub-section 24A(4)(b) clarifies that:
a. Extension of period requires fresh notification
b. References to “the period specified” in sub-section (1) include any extended period under sub-section (2)
c. Extension invalidates the original notification
d. No reference to the period is needed
39. Section 24A collectively empowers the Central Government to:
a. Issue area-specific prohibition notifications for possession of notified arms, limit duration, extend periods, and apply CrPC search and seizure provisions
b. Confiscate arms nationwide indefinitely
c. Only regulate licences
d. Allow local authorities to control possession
40. Under Section 24B(1), the Central Government may issue a notification when it is satisfied that:
a. There is a shortage of arms in public places
b. There is extensive disturbance of public peace or imminent danger of such disturbance
c. Only unlicensed persons are in possession of arms
d. Licence renewal is delayed
41. Section 24B(1)(b) specifies that the notification period shall commence from:
a. The day of publication in the Official Gazette
b. The second day after the date of publication
c. The seventh day after publication
d. Immediately after the notification
42. “Notified arms” under Section 24B refers to:
a. All firearms in India
b. Arms specified in the notification issued under Section 24B
c. Only prohibited arms
d. Military-grade arms only
43. During the notification period under Section 24B, in any public place in the specified area:
a. Any person may carry arms if licensed
b. Possession or carrying of notified arms is prohibited
c. Only police can carry arms
d. Arms may be carried for sport
44. Section 24B(1)(c)(i) empowers officers to search:
a. Only vehicles passing through the area
b. Any person, premises, animal, vessel, vehicle, or container in or passing through any public place in the area if they have reason to believe notified arms are secreted
c. Only unlicensed individuals
d. Only at police stations
45. Officers authorised under Section 24B(1)(c)(ii) may:
a. Record the presence of arms only
b. Seize any notified arms being carried or in possession of a person in a public place, and detain them during the notification period
c. Confiscate all firearms permanently
d. Return arms immediately
46. Section 24B is distinct from Section 24A because it:
a. Applies only to unlicensed arms
b. Specifically addresses carrying arms in public places, whereas 24A deals with general possession in disturbed areas
c. Applies only to rural areas
d. Requires court approval before enforcement
47. The maximum duration of a notification under Section 24B:
a. Is mentioned as 30 days in the Act
b. Is not specified in 24B itself but generally follows the rules for extensions like Section 24A
c. Cannot exceed 15 days
d. Is indefinite
48. Officers authorised under Section 24B can search:
a. Only persons
b. Persons, premises, animals, vessels, vehicles, conveyances, and containers in public places
c. Only containers
d. Only licensed arms holders
49. The purpose of Section 24B is to:
a. Enforce licences for sport
b. Prevent offences involving the use of arms in public places in disturbed areas
c. Confiscate all firearms nationwide
d. Control trade in arms
50. Under Section 24B(2), the initial period specified in a notification for any area shall not exceed:
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. 120 days
51. The Central Government may extend the notification period under Section 24B(2) by:
a. Indefinite period
b. Any period not exceeding ninety days at one time if the disturbance or imminent danger continues
c. Only once for 30 days
d. Only after court approval
52. Extension of a notification period under Section 24B(2) is justified when:
a. Only the local police request it
b. There continues to be disturbance of public peace or imminent danger, and it is necessary or expedient to prevent offences involving arms
c. Only unlicensed arms are present
d. The licensing authority fails to act
53. Section 24B(3) provides that searches and seizures under sub-section (1) shall:
a. Ignore all provisions of other laws
b. Follow, so far as may be, the provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 relating to searches and seizures
c. Require prior court permission in every case
d. Be conducted only by police officers
54. For the purposes of Section 24B(4)(a), the term “arms” includes:
a. Only firearms
b. Ammunition
c. Only prohibited weapons
d. Only military-grade arms
55. Section 24B(4)(b) defines “public place” as:
a. Any private property
b. Any place intended for use by, or accessible to, the public or any section of the public
c. Any place outside city limits
d. Any police station
56. As per Section 24B(4)(c), when the notification period is extended under sub-section (2), references to “the period specified in the notification” in sub-section (1):
a. Remain as originally issued
b. Are construed as references to the period as so extended
c. Are ignored
d. Must be approved by the district magistrate
57. Section 24B collectively empowers the Central Government to:
a. Regulate the carrying of notified arms in public places in disturbed areas, set notification periods, extend them, and authorise search and seizure consistent with CrPC
b. Confiscate all firearms nationwide
c. Enforce licences for sport only
d. Allow local authorities to control possession
58. The minimum time after publication before a notification under Section 24B takes effect is:
a. The same day
b. The second day after publication
c. Seven days after publication
d. One month after publication
59. The provisions of CrPC apply to searches under Section 24B(3) because:
a. To ensure legality and safeguard fundamental rights
b. To allow unlimited seizure
c. To empower only police officers
d. To override the Arms Act entirely
60. Under Section 25(1)(a), which of the following activities in contravention of Section 5 is punishable?
a. Manufacturing arms
b. Selling arms
c. Repairing arms
d. All of the above
61. Section 25(1)(b) prescribes punishment for:
a. Shortening the barrel of a firearm
b. Converting an imitation firearm into a real firearm
c. Converting a firearm from one category to another under the Arms Rules, 2016
d. All of the above
62. Which Section’s contravention is covered under Section 25(1)(d)?
a. Section 5
b. Section 6
c. Section 11 (import or export of arms and ammunition)
d. Section 9
63. The minimum punishment prescribed under Section 25(1) for offences mentioned therein is:
a. Three years imprisonment
b. Five years imprisonment
c. Seven years imprisonment
d. Ten years imprisonment
64. The maximum punishment prescribed under Section 25(1) for offences mentioned therein is:
a. Fifteen years imprisonment
b. Life imprisonment
c. Twenty years imprisonment
d. Ten years imprisonment
65. Section 25(1) also prescribes which of the following in addition to imprisonment?
a. Community service
b. Fine
c. Confiscation of property
d. Written warning
66. Which of the following actions is not specifically mentioned in Section 25(1)(a) as punishable?
a. Obtaining arms in contravention of Section 5
b. Testing arms in contravention of Section 5
c. Using arms for self-defense
d. Exposing arms for sale or transfer in contravention of Section 5
67. Section 25(1)(b) includes offences relating to conversion under which rules?
a. Arms Rules, 1959
b. Arms Rules, 2016
c. Criminal Procedure Rules
d. Indian Penal Code Rules
68. Punishments under Section 25(1) apply to offences involving:
a. Only firearms
b. Only ammunition
c. Both arms and ammunition
d. Only prohibited arms
69. Section 25(1) is primarily aimed at:
a. Regulating lawful possession
b. Prescribing punishment for serious contraventions like illegal manufacture, sale, conversion, and import/export of arms and ammunition
c. Granting licences
d. Minor offences only
70. Whoever acquires, possesses, or carries prohibited arms or prohibited ammunition in contravention of Section 7 is punishable with imprisonment of:
a. Not less than five years
b. Not less than seven years, which may extend to fourteen years
c. Not less than ten years, which may extend to life
d. Not less than three years
71. Under Section 25(1A), the Court may, for adequate and special reasons recorded in the judgment:
a. Reduce the sentence below seven years
b. Increase the sentence beyond fourteen years
c. Grant immunity
d. Only impose a fine
72. Section 25(1AB) prescribes punishment for:
a. Possessing prohibited arms
b. Using force to take a firearm from the police or armed forces
c. Manufacturing prohibited arms
d. Selling arms in contravention of Section 5
73. The minimum imprisonment for taking a firearm from the police or armed forces by force under Section 25(1AB) is:
a. Seven years
b. Ten years
c. Five years
d. Life imprisonment
74. The maximum punishment under Section 25(1AB) for taking a firearm from the police or armed forces is:
a. Fourteen years
b. Life imprisonment
c. Twenty years
d. Ten years
75. Section 25(1AA) prescribes punishment for:
a. Acquiring prohibited arms
b. Manufacturing, selling, transferring, converting, repairing, testing, proving, or offering prohibited arms/ammunition for sale, transfer, conversion, repair, test, or proof in contravention of Section 7
c. Using arms for self-defence
d. Possessing unlicensed firearms
76. The minimum punishment under Section 25(1AA) is:
a. Seven years
b. Ten years
c. Five years
d. Life imprisonment
77. The maximum punishment under Section 25(1AA) is:
a. Fourteen years
b. Life imprisonment
c. Twenty years
d. Ten years
78. Section 25(1A, 1AA, 1AB) also provides:
a. Only imprisonment
b. Imprisonment and fine
c. Only fine
d. Probation
79. The difference between Section 25(1A) and Section 25(1AA) is:
a. 1A deals with acquisition/possession/carrying; 1AA deals with manufacturing, sale, transfer, conversion, repair, testing, or proof
b. 1A deals with unlicensed arms; 1AA deals with legal arms
c. 1A deals with police; 1AA deals with civilians
d. There is no difference
80. Whoever, in contravention of a notification under Section 24A or 24B, possesses or carries arms or ammunition is punishable with:
a. Three to five years imprisonment
b. Seven years to life imprisonment and fine
c. Ten years imprisonment only
d. Fine only
81. Section 25(1AAA) applies to:
a. Only unlicensed firearms
b. Arms or ammunition possessed or carried in contravention of notifications under Sections 24A (disturbed areas – deposit) and 24B (disturbed areas – public places)
c. All firearms, licensed or unlicensed
d. Firearms in possession of police only
82. The minimum punishment under Section 25(1AAA) is:
a. Five years
b. Seven years
c. Ten years
d. Life imprisonment
83. The maximum punishment under Section 25(1AAA) is:
a. Fourteen years
b. Life imprisonment
c. Twenty years
d. Ten years
84. In addition to imprisonment, Section 25(1AAA) prescribes:
a. Confiscation of property
b. Probation
c. Fine
d. Community service
85. Whoever acquires, possesses, or carries any firearm or ammunition in contravention of Section 3 is punishable with:
a. Three to seven years imprisonment
b. Two to five years imprisonment and fine
c. Seven to fourteen years imprisonment
d. Life imprisonment
86. Section 25(1B)(b) applies to:
a. Any acquisition of firearms without a licence
b. Acquisition, possession, or carrying of arms in a place specified under Section 4 in contravention of that section
c. Carrying arms in public places only
d. Only prohibited arms
87. Under Section 25(1B)(c), a person selling or transferring a firearm without the proper identification mark as required under Section 8 is:
a. Punishable with 7–14 years imprisonment
b. Punishable with 2–5 years imprisonment and fine
c. Only liable to fine
d. Not punishable
88. Section 25(1B)(d) deals with:
a. Persons under 21 years of age
b. Persons to whom sub-clause (ii) or (iii) of clause (a) of Section 9(1) applies, acquiring or carrying firearms/ammunition in contravention of Section 9
c. Police officers carrying arms
d. Foreign tourists
89. Contraventions under Section 25(1B)(e) relate to:
a. Sale, transfer, conversion, repair, testing, or proof of firearms/ammunition in contravention of Section 9(1)(b)
b. Possession of firearms in a restricted area
c. Import of arms under Section 10
d. Transport of arms under Section 12
90. Section 25(1B)(f) prescribes punishment for:
a. Failure to deposit arms with a dealer
b. Bringing into or taking out of India any arms/ammunition in contravention of Section 10
c. Possessing prohibited arms
d. Carrying arms in a public place
91. Under Section 25(1B)(g), transporting arms or ammunition in contravention of which section is punishable?
a. Section 8
b. Section 12
c. Section 24A
d. Section 3
92. Failure to deposit arms as required under Section 25(1B)(h) refers to:
a. Sub-section (2) of Section 3 or sub-section (1) of Section 21
b. Section 9(1)
c. Section 12 only
d. Section 24B
93. Section 25(1B)(i) applies to:
a. Civilians only
b. Manufacturers or dealers who fail to maintain records, make false entries, obstruct inspection, or conceal arms/ammunition in contravention of Section 44 rules
c. Foreign tourists
d. Police officers
94. The punishment under Section 25(1B) is:
a. Two to five years imprisonment and fine, with judicial discretion to go below two years in special cases
b. Seven to fourteen years imprisonment
c. Life imprisonment only
d. Only fine
95. In a disturbed area, whoever commits an offence punishable under Section 25(1B) shall be punishable with:
a. Two to five years imprisonment
b. Three to seven years imprisonment and fine
c. Seven to fourteen years imprisonment
d. Life imprisonment
96. For the purposes of Section 25(1C), a “disturbed area” includes:
a. Any area where firearms are sold illegally
b. Areas specified by notification under Sections 24A or 24B and areas declared disturbed under any enactment
c. Only areas under Section 24A notifications
d. Only urban areas with police presence
97. Under Section 25(2), a person under the age of 21 who acquires or possesses a firearm in contravention of Section 9(1)(a)(i) is punishable with:
a. Imprisonment for 3–7 years
b. Imprisonment up to one year, or fine, or both
c. Two to five years imprisonment
d. Life imprisonment
98. Section 25(3) makes punishable the sale or transfer of firearms/ammunition without:
a. Paying a licence fee
b. Informing the district magistrate or officer in charge of the nearest police station
c. Displaying identification marks
d. Transporting through licensed vehicles only
99. The maximum fine prescribed under Section 25(3) for selling or transferring arms without notifying the authorities is:
a. ₹100
b. ₹500
c. ₹1,000
d. ₹5,000
100. Under Section 25(3), the imprisonment for contravening notification requirements for sale/transfer of arms may extend up to:
a. Three months
b. Six months
c. One year
d. Two years
101. Section 25(1C) is an example of:
a. A modification of punishment in certain areas overriding Section 25(1B)
b. A restriction on foreign tourists
c. A licensing requirement
d. A procedural rule for firearm testing
102. Under Section 25(4), failure to deliver or surrender a licence when required by the licensing authority is punishable with:
a. 1 year imprisonment or fine up to ₹200
b. 6 months imprisonment or fine up to ₹500 or both
c. 2 years imprisonment and fine
d. Life imprisonment
103. Section 25(5) makes punishable:
a. Failure to pay licence fees on time
b. Refusal to give name/address when demanded under Section 19, or giving false information
c. Carrying prohibited arms in public
d. Sale of firearms without license
104. The maximum fine under Section 25(5) for giving false name or address is:
a. ₹100
b. ₹200
c. ₹500
d. ₹1,000
105. Section 25(6) prescribes punishment for a member of an organised crime syndicate who possesses arms in contravention of Chapter II. The minimum imprisonment is:
a. 2 years
b. 3 years
c. 7 years
d. 10 years
106. Under Section 25(7), which of the following acts committed on behalf of an organised crime syndicate attracts a minimum 10 years imprisonment?
a. Carrying arms without licence in a private residence
b. Manufacturing or selling arms in contravention of Section 5
c. Failure to inform the DM about transfer of firearm
d. Giving a false address to police
107. Section 25(7) covers all of the following acts except:
a. Shortening the barrel of a firearm
b. Converting imitation firearms into real firearms
c. Selling arms without notifying police in a normal area
d. Importing/exporting arms in contravention of Section 11
108. According to the Explanation to Sections 25(6) & (7), an organised crime syndicate means:
a. Any group of persons possessing firearms
b. A group of two or more persons involved in continuing unlawful activity with violence, threat, or coercion
c. Any person who sells arms without a licence
d. Only groups involved in drug trafficking
109. “Organised crime” as defined in Section 25(6) Explanation includes:
a. Single act of unlawful possession
b. Continuing unlawful activity with objective of pecuniary or economic gain using violence, threat, or coercion
c. Selling firearms legally without licence
d. Possession of arms in a licensed gun shop
110. Under Section 25(8), illicit trafficking of firearms or ammunition in contravention of the Act is punishable with:
a. Up to 2 years imprisonment or fine up to ₹1 lakh
b. Minimum 10 years imprisonment up to life and fine
c. 5 years imprisonment only
d. Maximum 7 years imprisonment and fine
111. Which of the following acts constitutes “illicit trafficking” under Section 25(8)?
a. Moving firearms marked in accordance with the Act
b. Importing smuggled foreign firearms into India
c. Using a licensed firearm for sport
d. Selling firearms with proper registration
112. Section 25(8) applies to trafficking in contravention of which Sections of the Act?
a. Sections 3, 5, 6, 7, and 11
b. Sections 9, 10, 12 only
c. Sections 1 and 2 only
d. Sections 4, 8, 10
113. “Illicit trafficking” includes:
a. Sale or transfer of arms marked in accordance with the Act
b. Movement of firearms prohibited under the Act
c. Ownership of a firearm at home with license
d. Possession of a firearm by a law enforcement officer
114. Section 25(9) punishes which of the following acts?
a. Possession of prohibited ammunition
b. Import/export of firearms
c. Rash or negligent use of firearm or celebratory gunfire
d. Selling firearms without informing police
115. The maximum fine under Section 25(9) for celebratory gunfire is:
a. ₹50,000
b. ₹75,000
c. ₹1 lakh
d. ₹2 lakh
116. “Celebratory gunfire” under Section 25(9) includes:
a. Shooting during hunting activities
b. Firing in religious places, marriages, or other public functions
c. Target practice in a licensed club
d. Transporting firearms to police station
117. The term “illicit trafficking” under Section 25(8) does NOT include:
a. Transfer of smuggled firearms
b. Sale of unmarked prohibited ammunition
c. Licensed possession of firearms for sport
d. Import of foreign prohibited arms
118. Under Section 26(1), secret contravention of Sections 3, 4, 10, or 12 is punishable with:
a. Up to 2 years imprisonment and fine
b. Minimum 6 months and up to 7 years imprisonment and fine
c. Minimum 5 years imprisonment and fine
d. Life imprisonment
119. Section 26(2) deals with secret contravention of which Sections?
a. Sections 3, 4, 10, 12
b. Sections 5, 6, 7, 11
c. Sections 1, 2, 8, 9
d. Sections 12, 13, 14, 15
120. What is the minimum imprisonment prescribed under Section 26(2) for secret contravention of Sections 5, 6, 7, or 11?
a. 6 months
b. 1 year
c. 5 years
d. 7 years
121. Under Section 26(3), concealing or attempting to conceal arms during a search under Section 22 is punishable with:
a. Up to 2 years imprisonment
b. Up to 5 years imprisonment
c. Up to 10 years imprisonment and fine
d. Only fine
122. Which of the following actions falls under “secret contraventions” as per Section 26?
a. Openly transporting firearms with a licence
b. Moving arms secretly to avoid being detected by public servants
c. Selling arms in a licensed shop
d. Registering arms with the licensing authority
123. Section 26 emphasizes secret contraventions primarily to:
a. Increase penalties for minor offences
b. Punish concealment of offences from public servants or persons employed on transport
c. Encourage trade of arms
d. Regulate licensing fees
124. The maximum imprisonment under Section 26(1) for secret contravention of Sections 3, 4, 10, 12 is:
a. 5 years
b. 7 years
c. 10 years
d. Life imprisonment
125. The minimum imprisonment under Section 26(1) for secret contravention of Sections 3, 4, 10, 12 is:
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 1 year
d. 5 years
126. Under Section 27(1), the punishment for using any arms or ammunition in contravention of Section 5 is:
a. Imprisonment for up to 2 years only
b. Minimum 3 years and maximum 7 years imprisonment and fine
c. Life imprisonment only
d. Fine only
127. Section 27(2) prescribes the punishment for using prohibited arms or prohibited ammunition in contravention of Section 7. What is the minimum term of imprisonment?
a. 3 years
b. 5 years
c. 7 years
d. 10 years
128. Section 27(2) allows for imprisonment up to:
a. 7 years
b. 10 years
c. Life imprisonment
d. Death
129. According to Section 27(3), if the use of prohibited arms or ammunition in contravention of Section 7 results in the death of another person, the punishment is:
a. Imprisonment for life or death, and fine
b. Maximum 14 years imprisonment and fine
c. Minimum 7 years imprisonment only
d. Fine only
130. Section 27 deals with punishment primarily for:
a. Manufacturing of firearms without licence
b. Possession of arms without licence
c. Using arms or ammunition in contravention of the law
d. Transporting arms in India
131. Which of the following statements is true under Section 27?
a. Using arms under Section 5 contravention has a higher minimum sentence than Section 7 contravention
b. Using prohibited arms under Section 7 can result in death penalty if it causes death
c. Using any arms under Section 5 carries life imprisonment if death occurs
d. There is no fine under Section 27
132. The fine under Section 27 applies to:
a. Only contraventions under Section 5
b. Only contraventions under Section 7
c. All contraventions under Section 27
d. None of the contraventions
133. Under Section 28, the punishment for using or attempting to use a firearm or imitation firearm to resist lawful arrest or detention is:
a. Imprisonment up to 3 years only
b. Imprisonment up to 7 years and fine
c. Life imprisonment
d. Fine only
134. Section 28 applies to:
a. Only firearms, not imitation firearms
b. Only imitation firearms, not real firearms
c. Both firearms and imitation firearms
d. Only prohibited arms
135. The purpose of using a firearm or imitation firearm under Section 28 that triggers punishment is:
a. For sport or target practice
b. For self-defense at home
c. To resist or prevent lawful arrest or detention
d. To celebrate festivals
136. In Section 28, the term “imitation firearm” is defined as:
a. Any weapon not designed to fire
b. Any replica of a firearm used for hunting
c. Has the same meaning as in Section 6 of the Arms Act
d. Any firearm used by the police
137. The fine under Section 28:
a. Is optional depending on the magistrate
b. Is explicitly included as part of the punishment
c. Is not mentioned in the Act
d. Applies only if death occurs
138. Section 28 punishes the act of using a firearm or imitation firearm even if no injury occurs, provided the intent is to:
a. Commit robbery
b. Resist lawful arrest or detention
c. Trespass private property
d. Carry arms without a licence
139. Which of the following is true under Section 28?
a. The maximum imprisonment can exceed 10 years
b. The offence applies only if the person is already armed with a prohibited firearm
c. The offence applies to anyone attempting to use a firearm or imitation firearm to resist lawful arrest or detention
d. There is no imprisonment, only fine
140. Under Section 29, a person is punishable if they purchase arms or ammunition from:
a. Any licensed dealer
b. A person who is not licensed or authorised under Section 5
c. Any member of the armed forces
d. A government officer
141. Section 29 also applies to delivering arms or ammunition to another person if:
a. The person is under 18 years of age
b. The person is a member of the police
c. The deliverer has not ascertained that the person is entitled to possess them under law
d. The person has a valid licence
142. The punishment under Section 29 for purchasing or delivering arms in contravention of this section is:
a. Imprisonment for up to three years, or fine, or both
b. Life imprisonment only
c. Imprisonment for up to seven years
d. Fine only
143. Section 29 requires that before delivering arms or ammunition, a person must:
a. Verify the person’s age only
b. Verify the person’s employment status
c. Ascertain that the person is legally entitled and not prohibited from possessing them
d. Report the transaction to the police
144. The knowledge element under Section 29 means:
a. The offender must intend to sell arms illegally
b. The offender knows that the person they are buying from or delivering to is not authorised
c. The offender accidentally purchased from an unlicensed person
d. There is no need for knowledge
145. Section 29 applies to:
a. Only firearms
b. Only prohibited arms
c. Firearms, other arms as may be prescribed, and ammunition
d. Only imitation firearms
146. Which of the following statements is correct under Section 29?
a. Punishment is mandatory imprisonment
b. The offence applies only if the arms are prohibited under Section 7
c. The offence applies whether the act was committed intentionally or knowingly
d. The act is not punishable if the other person is licensed
147. Section 30 of the Arms Act applies when a person:
a. Commits an offence relating to prohibited arms
b. Violates Section 7 of the Act
c. Contravenes any condition of a licence or any provision of the Act or Rules for which no specific punishment is provided elsewhere
d. Illegally imports arms into India
148. Section 30 is in the nature of:
a. A special offence provision
b. A provision dealing only with licence holders
c. A residuary penal provision
d. A procedural provision
149. The punishment prescribed under Section 30 includes:
a. Mandatory imprisonment
b. Only fine
c. Imprisonment, or fine, or both
d. Imprisonment and fine compulsorily
150. The maximum term of imprisonment under Section 30 is:
a. Three months
b. One year
c. Six months
d. Two years
151. The maximum fine that may be imposed under Section 30 is:
a. ₹500
b. ₹1,000
c. ₹5,000
d. ₹2,000
152. Section 30 will NOT apply if:
a. A licence condition is violated
b. A rule made under the Act is violated
c. A specific punishment is provided elsewhere in the Arms Act for that contravention
d. The offender is a licence holder
153. Which of the following best explains the phrase “for which no punishment is provided elsewhere in this Act” in Section 30?
a. It enhances punishment under other sections
b. It overrides punishments under other sections
c. It restricts the application of Section 30 only to uncovered contraventions
d. It applies only to minor offences
154. Section 30 applies to contravention of:
a. Only licence conditions
b. Only rules
c. Only provisions of the Act
d. Licence conditions, provisions of the Act, and rules made thereunder
155. Which of the following situations would attract Section 30?
a. Use of prohibited arms resulting in death
b. Illicit trafficking of firearms
c. Violation of a licence condition where no specific punishment is prescribed
d. Possession of arms in a disturbed area
156. The nature of punishment under Section 30 reflects that the offence is generally:
a. Heinous
b. Cognisable and non-bailable
c. Minor or regulatory in nature
d. Punishable with minimum mandatory sentence
157. Section 31 of the Arms Act applies when a person:
a. Commits an offence involving prohibited arms
b. Is convicted for the first time under the Act
c. Having been convicted once under the Act, is again convicted of an offence under the Act
d. Commits two offences simultaneously
158. For the application of Section 31, which of the following is essential?
a. Prior arrest under the Act
b. Prior charge framed under the Act
c. Prior conviction under the Arms Act
d. Prior acquittal under the Arms Act
159. The enhanced punishment under Section 31 is calculated with reference to:
a. The first offence
b. The more serious offence
c. The latter offence
d. The discretion of the court
160. What is the quantum of punishment prescribed under Section 31?
a. Mandatory life imprisonment
b. One and a half times the penalty
c. Double the penalty provided for the latter offence
d. Maximum penalty under the Act
161. Section 31 enhances punishment by:
a. Creating a new substantive offence
b. Prescribing a minimum sentence
c. Increasing the penalty for repeat offenders
d. Removing judicial discretion
162. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Section 31?
a. It applies only to offences under Chapter III
b. It applies only to offences involving firearms
c. It applies to any offence under the Arms Act
d. It applies only when both offences are identical
163. For invoking Section 31, the two convictions must be:
a. Under the same section of the Act
b. For offences of the same gravity
c. For offences under the Arms Act, irrespective of the specific section
d. For offences committed within five years
164. Which principle of criminal jurisprudence is reflected in Section 31?
a. Presumption of innocence
b. Benefit of doubt
c. Enhanced punishment for recidivism
d. Strict liability
165. If the punishment for the latter offence is imprisonment up to three years or fine, Section 31 would permit:
a. Only enhancement of imprisonment
b. Only enhancement of fine
c. Doubling of the penalty prescribed for that offence
d. Automatic life imprisonment
166. Section 31 is best described as:
a. A procedural provision
b. A sentencing guideline
c. A statutory provision dealing with repeat offenders
d. An exception clause
167. Under Section 32(1) of the Arms Act, confiscation can be ordered when:
a. Arms are seized during investigation
b. Arms are merely suspected to be illegal
c. A person is convicted of an offence under the Act in respect of arms or ammunition
d. A charge sheet is filed
168. The power to order confiscation under Section 32(1) lies with:
a. The investigating officer
b. The District Magistrate
c. The convicting court
d. The licensing authority
169. Confiscation under Section 32(1) is:
a. Mandatory in all cases
b. Automatic upon seizure
c. Discretionary with the court
d. Subject to prior government approval
170. Which of the following may be confiscated under Section 32(1)?
a. Only arms and ammunition
b. Only vehicles used for transport
c. Arms, ammunition, vessels, vehicles, receptacles, or items used to conceal them
d. Only prohibited arms
171. Confiscation under Section 32(1) may relate to:
a. Only the whole of the arms or ammunition
b. Only a part of the arms or ammunition
c. The whole or any portion of the arms or ammunition
d. Only excess ammunition
172. What happens to an order of confiscation if the conviction is set aside on appeal or otherwise?
a. It remains effective
b. It requires fresh confirmation
c. It becomes void
d. It operates till final disposal
173. The proviso to Section 32(1) safeguards the rights of the accused by ensuring that:
a. Confiscation is appealable
b. Confiscation requires reasons
c. Confiscation cannot survive without conviction
d. Confiscation is time-bound
174. Under Section 32(2), which courts can also order confiscation?
a. Only the trial court
b. Only the appellate court
c. The appellate court and the High Court in revision
d. Only the High Court
175. The High Court’s power to order confiscation under Section 32(2) arises when it is:
a. Hearing a writ petition
b. Exercising original jurisdiction
c. Exercising revisional powers
d. Acting as a trial court
176. Section 32 primarily deals with:
a. Preventive detention
b. Licensing conditions
c. Ancillary consequences of conviction under the Arms Act
d. Investigation procedure
177. Which principle of criminal law is reflected in the proviso to Section 32(1)?
a. Presumption of guilt
b. Strict liability
c. Conviction as the foundation of penal consequences
d. Absolute confiscation
178. Confiscation of a vehicle under Section 32 is permissible if the vehicle was:
a. Owned by the accused
b. Registered in India
c. Used as a means of conveyance for arms or ammunition
d. Mentioned in the FIR
179. Section 33 of the Arms Act deals with:
a. Joint liability of offenders
b. Vicarious liability of public servants
c. Offences committed by companies
d. Corporate penalties only
180. When an offence under the Arms Act is committed by a company, who is deemed guilty under Section 33(1)?
a. Only the company
b. Only the Managing Director
c. The company and every person in charge of and responsible for its business
d. Only the licensing authority
181. Under Section 33(1), liability arises for a person if he was:
a. A shareholder of the company
b. Employed by the company
c. In charge of or responsible for the conduct of the business at the time of offence
d. A past director
182. The liability of persons under Section 33(1) is based on the principle of:
a. Strict liability
b. Absolute liability
c. Vicarious liability
d. Joint liability
183. Which defence is available to a person under the proviso to Section 33(1)?
a. That he was not a shareholder
b. That the offence is compoundable
c. That the offence was committed without his knowledge and despite due diligence
d. That the offence was minor
184. To escape liability under Section 33(1), the accused must prove:
a. Either lack of knowledge or due diligence
b. Only lack of knowledge
c. Only due diligence
d. Both lack of knowledge and exercise of due diligence
185. Section 33(2) applies when an offence by a company is committed with:
a. Mere negligence
b. Corporate approval
c. Consent, connivance, or neglect of company officers
d. Prior government sanction
186. Under Section 33(2), which of the following persons can be held personally liable?
a. Shareholders
b. Employees
c. Director, manager, secretary or other officer
d. Auditors only
187. The liability under Section 33(2) is:
a. Automatic
b. Presumed
c. Based on proof of consent, connivance or neglect
d. Based on designation alone
188. Section 33(2) begins with the phrase “Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-section (1)”, which means:
a. It repeals sub-section (1)
b. It is subordinate to sub-section (1)
c. It has an overriding effect over sub-section (1)
d. It applies only after acquittal
189. As per the Explanation to Section 33, the term “company” includes:
a. Only registered companies
b. Only public limited companies
c. Any body corporate, firm, or association of individuals
d. Only government companies
190. For the purposes of Section 33, a “director” in relation to a firm means:
a. Managing partner
b. Chief executive
c. A partner of the firm
d. Compliance officer
191. Which statement best describes the combined effect of Sections 33(1) and 33(2)?
a. Only the company can be punished
b. Only officers can be punished
c. Both the company and responsible individuals can be punished
d. Only civil liability arises
192. Section 33 reflects which broader criminal law principle?
a. Mens rea is irrelevant
b. Collective punishment
c. Corporate criminal liability
d. Preventive detention
193. Burden of proof under the proviso to Section 33(1) lies on:
a. Prosecution
b. Court
c. The accused person claiming the defence
d. Investigating officer
194. Section 34 of the Arms Act deals with:
a. Export of arms
b. Licensing of warehouses
c. Sanction of Central Government for warehousing of arms
d. Confiscation of arms
195. Section 34 begins with a non-obstante clause. This means:
a. It repeals the Customs Act
b. It is subordinate to the Customs Act
c. It overrides anything inconsistent in the Customs Act, 1962
d. It applies only in absence of customs law
196. The warehouse referred to in Section 34 must be licensed under which provision?
a. Section 57 of the Customs Act
b. Section 45 of the Arms Act
c. Section 58 of the Customs Act, 1962
d. Section 17 of the Arms Act
197. Who is the competent authority to grant sanction under Section 34?
a. State Government
b. Licensing authority
c. Director General of Police
d. Central Government
198. Section 34 applies to the warehousing of:
a. Only prohibited arms
b. Only imported arms
c. Only ammunition
d. Arms or ammunition
199. The primary objective of Section 34 is to ensure:
a. Revenue protection
b. Trade facilitation
c. Enhanced national security and centralised control over arms storage
d. Ease of import
200. Section 35 of the Arms Act deals with:
a. Confiscation of arms
b. Offences by companies
c. Criminal responsibility of persons in joint occupation or control of premises
d. Sanction for prosecution
201. Section 35 applies when arms or ammunition are found in:
a. Public places only
b. Licensed premises only
c. Any premises, vehicle or other place
d. Private dwelling houses only
202. The key requirement for attracting liability under Section 35 is:
a. Ownership of the premises
b. Physical possession of arms
c. Joint occupation or joint control
d. Registration of premises